EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...


Question List

Question1: Where should the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) be stored and protected?

Question2: Which is a definition of a risk cause?

Question3: The goal of which process is: "To improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the lifecycle"?

Question4: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question5: Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers

Question6: When should tests for a new service be designed?

Question7: A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Defining the process strategy
2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process

Question8: A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?
1. A new IT service
2. A major change to an IT service
3. An emergency change to an IT service
4. An IT service retirement

Question9: Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?

Question10: The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is that:

Question11: Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?

Question12: Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?

Question13: Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?

Question14: When is it confirmed if a project's objectives have been achieved?

Question15: Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

Question16: In service design, which term describes services, technologies and tools?

Question17: Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?

Question18: Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?

Question19: Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

Question20: Order the following continual service improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
(1) Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives.
(2) Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved.
(3) Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI.
(4) Decision on implementation of further enhancement.

Question21: Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?

Question22: Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

Question23: How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?

Question24: Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures

Question25: Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?

Question26: Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?
1. Service pipeline
2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)
3. Service catalogue

Question27: Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices

Question28: A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:

Question29: Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

Question30: What is an objective of event management?

Question31: The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?

Question32: What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after?
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?

Question33: Which of the following are objectives of Service Design?
(1) Design Services to satisfy business objectives.
(2) Identify and manage risk.
(3) Design effective and efficient processes
(4) Design a secure and resilient IT infrastructure.

Question34: Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

Question35: What is the Service Pipeline?

Question36: Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?

Question37: Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?

Question38: Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

Question39: Which Functions are included in IT operations management?

Question40: Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

Question41: Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Core
2. Enabling
3. Special

Question42: Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow
2. Measurement and reporting
3. Release and deployment
4. Process design

Question43: Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?
1. Service Solutions for new or changed services
2. Management policies and guidelines
3. Business requirements technology and management architectures
4. Process requirements technology and management architectures

Question44: Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

Question45: Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?
(1) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business (2) The successful release of services into the live environment

Question46: There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes.
Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
(1) Progress
(2) Effectiveness
(3) Efficiency
(4) ?

Question47: What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?

Question48: Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?

Question49: Access Management is closely related to which other processes?

Question50: In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:

Question51: What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

Question52: Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development?

Question53: Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?

Question54: Which of the following BEST describes a problem?

Question55: Identify the input to the Problem Management process.

Question56: Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?

Question57: In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?

Question58: Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?

Question59: Which of the following would be carried out as part of a post-project benefits review?

Question60: Which of the following are within the scope of service asset and configuration management?
1. Identification of configuration items (CIs)
2. Recording relationships between CIs
3. Recording and control of virtual CIs
4. Approving finance for the purchase of software to support service asset and configuration management

Question61: Which of the following is an example of self-help capabilities?

Question62: One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?

Question63: Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?

Question64: Customer perceptions and business outcomes help lo define what?

Question65: The BEST processes to automate are those that are:

Question66: Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT?

Question67: Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

Question68: Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

Question69: Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT?

Question70: What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business?

Question71: Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

Question72: What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?

Question73: What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve?

Question74: What is the objective of Access Management?

Question75: Where should the following information be stored?
1. The experience of staff
2. Records of user behaviour
3. Supplier's abilities and requirements
4. User skill levels

Question76: What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

Question77: Access management is closely related to which other process?

Question78: What is the name given to the individual assigned to carry out a risk response action or actions to respond to a particular risk or set of risks?

Question79: Which of the following BEST describes technical management?

Question80: With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

Question81: Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?

Question82: What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?

Question83: As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types?
(1) An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
(2) An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
(3) An external service provider

Question84: Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models?
(1) Roles and responsibilities
(2) Template release and deployment
(3) Supporting systems, tools and procedures.
(4) Handover activities and responsibilities

Question85: Service Design emphasizes the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these
'Four Ps'?

Question86: What are Request Models used for?

Question87: Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question88: What are underpinning contracts used to document?

Question89: Which is used to assess business demand for services?

Question90: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?

Question91: Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)?

Question92: What BEST defines serviceability?

Question93: Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources
2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Result in higher volume of successful changes

Question94: Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of what?

Question95: Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?

Question96: What are the three service provider business models?

Question97: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Question98: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?

Question99: Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room
2. Applications
3. Power and cooling equipment
4. Recovery sites

Question100: Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?

Question101: What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

Question102: Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process?

Question103: Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?

Question104: Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?

Question105: Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?

Question106: Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1. The approach is pre-authorized
2. The risk is usually low and well understood
3. Details of the change will be recorded
4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process

Question107: Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

Question108: A Service Level Agreement is?

Question109: Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?

Question110: Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?

Question111: What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?

Question112: Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
(1) Known Error Data
(2) Change Schedules
(3) Service Knowledge Management System
(4) The output from monitoring tools

Question113: Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

Question114: Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

Question115: Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes

Question116: Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

Question117: Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?
1. Incident model
2. Known error record

Question118: Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

Question119: Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?
1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
2. Identifying improvement opportunities
3. Appointing people to required roles

Question120: Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:

Question121: Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?
1. Capacity management
2. Request fulfillment
3. Demand management
4. Incident management

Question122: The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?

Question123: Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?

Question124: In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s contribution?

Question125: What is the BEST description of an external customer?

Question126: What should a release policy include?

Question127: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?

Question128: Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
(1) Risk assessment
(2) Testing of resilience mechanisms
(3) Monitoring of component availability

Question129: Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?

Question130: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

Question131: Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?

Question132: Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
(1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
(2) What services to offer and to whom?
(3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

Question133: Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process?

Question134: What is the primary focus of the business management?

Question135: Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?

Question136: Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?

Question137: Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during the transition stage of the service lifecycle?

Question138: Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?

Question139: Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?

Question140: Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

Question141: In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?

Question142: Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome

Question143: Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.

Question144: Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?

Question145: Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?

Question146: Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

Question147: Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

Question148: Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT

Question149: Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

Question150: Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?

Question151: In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?

Question152: Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?

Question153: Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?

Question154: Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes

Question155: What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities?

Question156: How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?

Question157: Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

Question158: Which one of the following do major incidents require?

Question159: Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

Question160: What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?

Question161: Gathering data, monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements are all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle?

Question162: Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1. Things that were done correctly
2. Things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future

Question163: Which of the following describes risk proximity?

Question164: Which of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?

Question165: The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

Question166: A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?

Question167: Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?

Question168: Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

Question169: Which is an objective of access management?

Question170: What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required?

Question171: Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

Question172: Which process or function is responsible for the Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares?

Question173: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Question174: Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?

Question175: What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

Question176: Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?

Question177: Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?

Question178: What are the processes within Service Operation?

Question179: Which of the following provides the PRIMARY source of guidance on what needs to be protected by information security management?

Question180: Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

Question181: Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

Question182: Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?

Question183: When tan a known error record tie raised?
(1) At any time when it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found

Question184: In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

Question185: Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action plans have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction?

Question186: The Supplier Management process includes:
(1) Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements (2) Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements (3) Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business

Question187: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

Question188: Which one of the following generates demand for services?

Question189: Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services between service providers?

Question190: Which of the following is commonly found in a contract underpinning an IT service?Financial arrangements related to the contract Description of the goods or service provided Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

Question191: Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?

Question192: Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

Question193: Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?

Question194: Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

Question195: Which of the following questions does the guidance in service strategy help to answer?
(1) What services should we offer and to whom?
(2) How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
(3) How do we create value for our customers?

Question196: Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks could seriously affect IT services, the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?

Question197: Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?

Question198: In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?
1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

Question199: An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer.
What imbalance does this represent?

Question200: IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:
(1) Design of the service technology
(2) Business continuity strategy
(3) Business Impact Analysis
(4) Risk assessment

Question201: Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?

Question202: The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

Question203: What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?

Question204: Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

Question205: Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?

Question206: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?

Question207: Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?

Question208: Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

Question209: Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet

Question210: Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

Question211: Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
(1) Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
(2) Monitoring and reporting actual availability
(3) Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals

Question212: Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

Question213: Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?

Question214: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

Question215: Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?

Question216: Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

Question217: What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

Question218: Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Monitoring system availability
2. Designing availability into a proposed solution

Question219: What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

Question220: Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

Question221: What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract known as?

Question222: The definitive media library is the responsibility of:

Question223: Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?

Question224: Which one of the following does service metrics measure?

Question225: Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?

Question226: Which process has the following objective "Establish new or changed services into supported environments within the predicted cost, time and resource estimates"?

Question227: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?

Question228: Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

Question229: Which is a recommended response type to respond to either a threat or an opportunity?

Question230: Which of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

Question231: What is a RACI model used for?

Question232: Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?

Question233: Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

Question234: Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication

Question235: Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service designs?

Question236: From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?

Question237: Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which stage of the service lifecycle?

Question238: What type of record should you raise when a problem diagnosis is complete and a workaround is available?

Question239: The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?

Question240: A configuration model can be used to help
(1) Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems
(2) Assess the impact of proposed changes
(3) Plan and design new or changed services
(4) Plan technology refresh and software upgrades

Question241: Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?

Question242: Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes
2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes

Question243: Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?

Question244: Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing Service Transition?
(1) Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
(2) Reduced cost to design new services
(3) Improved success in implementing changes

Question245: In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

Question246: Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?

Question247: Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?

Question248: Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?

Question249: Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?

Question250: Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

Question251: Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

Question252: Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and modeling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern recognition and analysis
4. Detection and monitoring

Question253: Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?

Question254: "Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

Question255: Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?

Question256: Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

Question257: Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

Question258: Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

Question259: Which of the following statements describes the objectives of service asset and configuration management?
1. To identify, control, report and verify service assets and configuration items (CIs)
2. To account for, manage and protect the integrity of service assets and configuration items
3. To establish and maintain an accurate and complete configuration management system
4. To document all security controls together with their operation and maintenance

Question260: Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Enabling
2. Core
3. Enhancing
4. Computer

Question261: A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

Question262: Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?

Question263: What should be documented as part of every process?

Question264: Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
(1) Architectures
(2) Technology
(3) Service Management processes
(4) Metrics

Question265: Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?

Question266: Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

Question267: Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?

Question268: The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?

Question269: Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

Question270: Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (Cis)?
(1) Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
(2) Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
(3) Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
(4) Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade

Question271: Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?

Question272: Which of the following is the best definition of service management?

Question273: Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process?

Question274: Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?

Question275: Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?

Question276: Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

Question277: Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes

Question278: Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:

Question279: Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

Question280: Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment?

Question281: What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

Question282: What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

Question283: What is the primary focus of business capacity management?

Question284: The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

Question285: Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

Question286: Which of these recommendations is best practice for service level management?
1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA

Question287: From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

Question288: "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?

Question289: Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

Question290: Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?

Question291: In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?

Question292: Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?

Question293: Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

Question294: Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?

Question295: Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?

Question296: How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

Question297: Which is the CORRECT description of an outcome?

Question298: Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?

Question299: Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
(1) Roles
(2) Activities
(3) Functions
(4) Responsibilities

Question300: What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business?

Question301: Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment

Question302: Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?

Question303: Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?

Question304: Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?
1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is
2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
3. Defining how value is created

Question305: Which process analyses services that are no longer viable and when they should be retired?

Question306: Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

Question307: Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?

Question308: Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

Question309: Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?